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NEW QUESTION # 266
A community health nurse is asked to organize a health promotion project that plans to provide glucose screening. This activity is most beneficial within what realm?
- A. testing that is performed by volunteers at a local department store and is open to the public
- B. at a professional health fair activity available for selected persons who have been screened as being at risk
- C. mass-marketing vouchers for free fingersticks at a local drug store, where the pharmacist makes recommendations on the findings
- D. testing that is performed by a nurse professional, who immediately provides education regarding the findings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Public glucose screening has been found to be an ineffective way to screen for diabetes unless based on health risk screening for those persons identified to be at risk or displaying
symptoms.Safety and InfectionControl
NEW QUESTION # 267
A nurse has been instructed to place an IV line in a patient that has active TB and HIV. The nurse should wear which of the following safety equipment?
- A. Goggles, mask, gloves, and gown
- B. Surgical cap, gloves, mask, and proper shoewear
- C. Double gloves, gown, and mask
- D. Sterile gloves, mask, and goggles
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
All protective measures must be worn, it is not required to double glove.
NEW QUESTION # 268
A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25 year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
Bicarbonate ion-25 mEq/l
PH-7.41
PaCO2-29 mmHg
PaO2-54 mmHg
(FiO2)-.22
- A. metabolic alkalosis
- B. respiratory alkalosis
- C. metabolic acidosis
- D. respiratory acidosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Respiratory alkalosis-elevated pH, and low carbon dioxide levels, no compensation noted.
NEW QUESTION # 269
A nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced burns to the right lower extremity.
According to the Rule of Nines, which of the following percents most accurately describes the severity of the injury?
- A. 9%
- B. 18%
- C. 36%
- D. 27%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
Each lower extremity is scored as 18% according to the Rule of Nines.
NEW QUESTION # 270
Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client who is unable to swallow?
- A. nasogastric feedings
- B. nothing by mouth
- C. clear liquids
- D. total parenteral nutrition
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nasogastric feedings are most appropriate for a client who is unable to swallow. Nothing by mouth leads to nutritional deficiencies. The client might aspirate a clear liquid diet. TPN is not necessary as long as the gut is still functioning. Reduction of Risk Potential
NEW QUESTION # 271
Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?
- A. CPK
- B. troponin
- C. LDH
- D. SGOT
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
The troponin level is the first to rise in a client who has had a myocardial infarction, followed by CPK, SGOT, and LDH.
NEW QUESTION # 272
A nurse has just started on the 7PM surgical unit shift. Which of the following patients should the nurse check on first?
- A. A 75 year-old female who is scheduled for an EGD in 10 hours.
- B. A 21 year-old male who had a lower extremity BKA yesterday, following a MVA and has phantom pain.
- C. A 27 year-old female who has received 1.5 units of RBC's. via transfusion the previous day.
- D. A 34 year-old male who is complaining of low back pain following back surgery and has an onset of urinary incontinence in the last hour.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The new onset of urinary incontinence may require additional medical assessment, and the physician needs to be notified.
NEW QUESTION # 273
An appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus is:
- A. a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
- B. in and out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
- C. a urologist consult.
- D. insertion of a Foley catheter.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A urologist consult is appropriate for a client with visible blood at the urethral meatus and suspected trauma.
Choices 1 and 2 are contraindicated. A urinalysis might be ordered by the physician, but the question does not provide enough information to make Choice 3 the correct answer. Physiological Adaptation
NEW QUESTION # 274
Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?
- A. "The physician will probably want to admit you for observation."
- B. "These are really dangerous signs."
- C. "The physician will probably order bed rest at home."
- D. "The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy, developing after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by edema, hypertension, and proteinuria (preclampsia and eclampsia). The cause is unknown. The client with advanced PIH needs rest, and home is the best place to get it.
Hospitalization is not necessary in this situation. Medication is not indicated. Physiological Adaptation
NEW QUESTION # 275
A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS.
Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?
- A. Weakness and SOB
- B. Hypertension and SOB
- C. Fever and hypertension
- D. Fever and anemia
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
Anemia and fever are associated with Zidovudine's side effects.
NEW QUESTION # 276
Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome
- B. taking medications as prescribed
- C. providing safety measures to prevent falls
- D. having regular health assessments
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Explanation:
All of the strategies listed are included in home care for the client with Cushing's syndrome. Choice "wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome" is the best answer because wearing a medical ID is a visible sign that something is wrong and a constant reminder to the client that he or she has a loss of body function.
Choice "providing safety measures to prevent falls" might enhance body image because it prevents falls that could cause further injury and debilitation.
Taking medications as prescribed should enhance body image because it decreases the symptoms present.
Having regular health assessments indicates an enhanced body image because it signals the desire to take care of the body and keep it at its best.
NEW QUESTION # 277
In alcoholics with anemia __________.
- A. the alcohol interferes with iron absorption
- B. iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist
- C. pernicious anemia is more common than folic acid deficiency
- D. oral vitamin replacement is contraindicated
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
The ingestion of nonfood substances (alcohol) can lead to a clinical iron deficiency and might actually be the first sign of a problem.
The client might substitute alcohol for a nutrition program that fosters a positive health habit.
NEW QUESTION # 278
A nurse is setting up a vision-screening program for a new school.
At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?
- A. 6-year-old
- B. 4-year-old
- C. 7-year-old
- D. 5-year-old
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Explanation:
6 years is the standard age of 20/20 vision potential.
NEW QUESTION # 279
A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
- A. constipation.
- B. stomatitis.
- C. xerostomia.
- D. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage persists for 1 to 2 months after removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth.Physiological Adaptation
NEW QUESTION # 280
The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?
- A. Inform the woman she has the right to change her mind about relinquishment.
- B. Make a referral for grief counseling.
- C. Allow the woman to see her baby initially, and then discourage further visits.
- D. Provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Most women who relinquish their infants at birth have come to that decision with a great deal of love and pain. They have made plans in advance. The nurse needs to first provide them with opportunities to express their feelings that might include grief, loneliness, and guilt. A referral for grief counseling might be appropriate if no other support system exists or the mother indicates that she wants assistance working through her grief. If the nurse assesses that the grief process is abnormal, a referral is also appropriate.
The mother has probably already made a decision about whether or not she wants to see her baby. The nurse should ask her and make arrangements for that to happen if the mother requests it. Seeing the baby might aid in the grief process. Until relinquishment occurs, this is the mother's baby and she should be allowed to see it as often as she wants. The mother does have the right to change her mind until final legal arrangements are made. But suggesting this option might lead her to think that the nurse believes she shouldn't relinquish her baby. Health Promotion and Maintenance
NEW QUESTION # 281
Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. oral contraceptives
- B. intrauterine device (IUD)
- C. Norplant
- D. vaginal sponge
Answer: D
Explanation:
The vaginal sponge is a barrier method of contraception that, when used with foam or jelly contraception, reduces the transmission of HIV and other STDs as well as reducing the risk of pregnancy. IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives can prevent pregnancy but not the transmission HIV and STDs. Clients using the contraceptive methods in Choices 1, 2, and 3 should be counseled to use a chemical or barrier contraceptive to decrease transmission of HIV or STDs.Health Promotion and Maintenance
NEW QUESTION # 282
A physician orders the administration of ibuprofen, but the nurse notices the patient is allergic to NSAIDs.
What should the nurse do?
- A. Find out how serious the patient's reaction is to NSAID exposure.
- B. Contact the physician to verify the order and discuss concerns.
- C. Ask the patient if he or she feels comfortable taking the medication.
- D. Administer the medication per the physician's order.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NEW QUESTION # 283
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