300-745 Exam Dumps Pass with Updated 2026 Certified Exam Questions [Q21-Q39]

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300-745 Exam Dumps Pass with Updated 2026 Certified Exam Questions

300-745 Exam Questions - Real & Updated Questions PDF


Cisco 300-745 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Risk, Events, and Requirements: Covers SOC incident handling and response tools, modifying security designs to mitigate or respond to incidents, and applying frameworks like MITRE CAPEC, NIST SP 800-37, and SAFE. Includes matching regulatory and compliance requirements to business scenarios.
Topic 2
  • Artificial Intelligence, Automation, and DevSecOps: Explores AI's role in securing network infrastructure, selecting tools for automated security architectures such as SOAR, IaC, and API tooling, and integrating security into DevSecOps workflows and pipelines to minimize deployment risk.
Topic 3
  • Secure Infrastructure: Covers selecting security approaches for endpoints, identities, email, and modern environments like hybrid work, IoT, SaaS, and multi-cloud. Includes choosing VPN
  • tunneling solutions, securing management planes, and selecting the appropriate firewall architecture based on business needs.
Topic 4
  • Applications: Focuses on selecting security solutions to protect applications and designing secure architectures for cloud-native, containerized, and serverless environments using segmentation. Also addresses security design impacts of emerging technologies like AI, ML, and quantum computing.

 

NEW QUESTION # 21
A pharmaceutical company needs hub-and-spoke VPN topology. The design must be capable of building either partial or full mesh overlay networks. Which VPN solution must be implemented in the environment?

  • A. crypto maps
  • B. DMVPN
  • C. L2TP
  • D. SSL VPN

Answer: B

Explanation:
Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) supports hub-and-spoke topologies while allowing flexibility to build partial or full mesh overlays as needed. It provides scalable and dynamic VPN tunnels without requiring static configuration, making it the best fit for the requirement.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Which benefit does AI provide in network security?

  • A. It replaces comprehensive defense in depth.
  • B. It speeds up network data transmission rates.
  • C. It provides complete protection from DDoS attacks.
  • D. It identifies vulnerabilities associated with weak TLS algorithms.

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the Cisco SDSI v1.0 objectives, Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning (ML) provide significant benefits in automating the identification of complex security weaknesses. One of the primary benefits is the ability of AI to performEncrypted Threat Analytics (ETA). AI models can analyze the metadata and initial handshake patterns of encrypted traffic-without needing to decrypt it-toidentify vulnerabilities associated with weak TLS algorithmsor outdated cipher suites.
By recognizing specific fingerprints in the TLS handshake, AI-driven tools can alert administrators to non- compliant encryption standards that might be susceptible to interception. While AI is a powerful force multiplier, it doesnot replacea comprehensive defense-in-depth strategy (Option B); rather, it enhances it. It does not directlyspeed up data transmission(Option A), as that is a function of hardware and bandwidth.
Furthermore, while AI helps mitigate DDoS attacks, it rarely provides "complete" protection (Option C) on its own, as DDoS mitigation requires a multi-layered approach involving massive bandwidth and specialized scrubbing. The ability to identify cryptographic weaknesses at scale is a core functional benefit of AI in modern security infrastructure, aligning with the Cisco goal of maintaining a hardened and compliant network posture through automated visibility.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which tool must be used to prioritize incidents by a SOC?

  • A. endpoint protection platform
  • B. endpoint detection and response
  • C. CloudWatch
  • D. SIEM

Answer: D

Explanation:
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) tool collects and correlates security logs from across the enterprise, then applies analytics to prioritize incidents for SOC analysts. This enables efficient detection and response to the most critical threats.


NEW QUESTION # 24
A security engineer on an application design team must choose a framework of attack patterns to evaluate during threat modeling. Which framework provides the common set of attacks?

  • A. MITRE CAPEC
  • B. GDPR
  • C. SOC2
  • D. Cisco SAFE

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the "Risk, Events, and Requirements" domain of the Cisco SDSI curriculum, understanding how to systematically identify and mitigate threats is essential.MITRE CAPEC (Common Attack Pattern Enumeration and Classification)is a comprehensive dictionary and classification scheme for known attack patterns used by adversaries. It is specifically designed to help security engineers, developers, and designers understand how an attacker might exploit a system. By using CAPEC during the threat modeling phase, an engineer can look at specific "attack patterns"-such as SQL injection, Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), or Man-in- the-Middle-to see if the application's architecture is resilient against them.
UnlikeCisco SAFE(Option A), which is an architectural guide providing best practices for designing secure networks, orGDPR(Option B) andSOC2(Option D), which are regulatory and compliance frameworks focused on privacy and operational auditing, CAPEC is purely technical and focused on the "how" of an attack. It provides the granular data necessary to simulate attacks and build robust defenses into the application design. Integrating CAPEC into the development lifecycle allows teams to move beyond broad risks and address the specific methods attackers use to bypass security controls. This alignment with the MITRE knowledge base ensures that the security infrastructure is designed with a realistic understanding of modern adversarial tactics, which is a core objective for Cisco security professionals.


NEW QUESTION # 25
An agricultural company wants to enhance the cybersecurity posture by implementing a defense- in-depth strategy to protect against polymorphic malware threats. Currently, the company's security infrastructure relies solely on a stateful traditional edge firewall that does not provide adequate protection against malware variants. Which technology must be added to the company's security architecture to achieve the goal?

  • A. web application firewall
  • B. heuristics-based IPS
  • C. physical security control
  • D. network performance monitor

Answer: B

Explanation:
A heuristics-based Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) analyzes traffic behavior and patterns, allowing it to detect and block polymorphic malware that constantly changes its signature to evade traditional defenses. Adding this technology strengthens the company's defense-in-depth strategy beyond the limitations of a stateful firewall.


NEW QUESTION # 26
An IT company operates an application in a SaaS model. The administrative tasks, such as customer onboarding, within the application must be restricted to users who are on the corporate network where admins can access those functions via a web browser or a smartphone application. Which application technology must be used to provide granular control based on function?

  • A. security group
  • B. VPC
  • C. Service Mesh
  • D. RBAC

Answer: D

Explanation:
The requirement to restrict administrative tasks like "customer onboarding" to specific users based on their job function is a classic use case forRole-Based Access Control (RBAC). In the context of application security design, RBAC is the mechanism that maps a user's identity to a specific set of permissions within the application.
According to Cisco Security Infrastructure principles, RBAC ensures the principle ofleast privilegeby ensuring that an "Admin" role has access to onboarding functions, while a "Support" or "Standard User" role does not. This control is independent of the network layer and is enforced at the application or identity provider level. While aVPC(Option A) orSecurity Groups(Option C) provide network-layer isolation and can ensure the user is on the corporate network (by filtering IP ranges), they cannot distinguish between differentfunctionsoractionsperformed within the application once the connection is established. AService Mesh(Option D) is used for microservices communication and can provide some authorization, but RBAC is the primary architectural approach for defining "who can do what" within an application interface.
Implementing RBAC allows the SaaS provider to secure sensitive administrative workflows, ensuring that only authorized personnel can modify customer data or system configurations.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
A manufacturing company experienced a security breach that resulted in sales data being compromised. An engineer participating in the investigation must identify who logged into the sales system during the affected period. Which approach must be used to gather the information?

  • A. NACM
  • B. AAA
  • C. SNMP
  • D. PKI

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the aftermath of a security breach, forensic investigators rely on theAccountingportion ofAAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting)to reconstruct a timeline of events. While Authentication verifies identity and Authorization defines permissions, Accounting is the specific framework used to track user activity, including login/logout times and the specific commands executed during a session.
According to Cisco Security Infrastructure design objectives, implementing a centralized AAA solution (such asCisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)or a TACACS+/RADIUS server) is critical for accountability. In this scenario, the engineer would query the AAA logs to identify exactly "who" accessed the sales system during the compromise period.SNMP(Option A) is primarily for network monitoring and performance data, not granular user access logs.NACM(Option B) is an access control model for NETCONF but doesn't provide the broad auditing required here.PKI(Option D) provides the certificates used for digital signatures and encryption but does not log the historical "session" data needed for the investigation. Therefore, AAA is the fundamental architectural requirement for ensuring non-repudiation and providing the audit trail necessary to satisfy risk management and incident response requirements.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
Which tool is used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from network devices, endpoints, and other sources in an enterprise?

  • A. Splunk
  • B. Cisco Web Security Appliance
  • C. Cloud Observability
  • D. Cisco Email Security Appliance

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the architectural design of a modern Security Operations Center (SOC), visibility is paramount.Splunkis a leading Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) and log management platform used to aggregate data from disparate sources across the enterprise. According to theCisco SDSI v1.0objectives, specifically within the "Risk, Events, and Requirements" domain, a central repository for telemetry is essential for incident response and threat hunting.
Splunk collects logs, metrics, and other data from network devices (firewalls, switches, routers), endpoints (laptops, servers), and cloud applications. It then indexes this data, allowing security analysts to perform complex searches, create visualizations, and build dashboards that provide a real-time view of the organization's security posture.
While Cisco offers native tools likeCisco Secure Cloud AnalyticsorCloud Observability(Option B) for specific cloud and application performance monitoring, Splunk serves as the broader "single pane of glass" for the entire infrastructure.Cisco Email Security Appliance(Option A) andCisco Web Security Appliance (Option C) are specialized security engines thatgeneratelogs but do not function as the overarching collection and analysis platform for the entire enterprise. By integrating Cisco security products with Splunk, organizations can correlate events-such as a blocked web request from a WSA and a malware alert from a Secure Endpoint-to identify a coordinated attack, fulfilling the Cisco SAFE requirement for pervasive visibility.
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NEW QUESTION # 29
A manufacturing company recently experienced a network-down scenario due to malware spread on the management network. The company wants to implement a solution to detect and mitigate a similar threat in the future and protect the overall network. Which solution meets the requirements?

  • A. endpoint detection and response
  • B. encrypted threat analysis
  • C. IPsec VPN
  • D. RADIUS

Answer: A

Explanation:
The spread of malware across a sensitive segment like themanagement networkhighlights a failure in host- level security and internal visibility. To detect and mitigate the spread of such threats and protect the overall network,Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)is the most effective choice among the options. In the Cisco security ecosystem, the endpoint is often the last line of defense and the most critical source of telemetry for malware incidents.
By deploying an EDR solution likeCisco Secure Endpoint, the manufacturing company gains the ability to identify the "patient zero" of the infection. EDR uses advanced features likeDevice TraversalandLateral Movementdetection to see how malware moves from one machine to another over the management network.
Once detected, the security team can use the EDR platform to initiate a "host isolation" command, effectively cutting off the infected device's communication with the rest of the network without physically unplugging it.
WhileEncrypted Threat Analytics (ETA)(Option C) is a powerful network-based feature for detecting malware in encrypted traffic without decryption, EDR provides the most granular control and response capabilities specifically for malwareresiding on and spreading betweenhosts. RADIUS (Option B) and IPsec VPNs (Option D) focus on access control and encryption of data in transit, respectively, but do not provide the behavioral analysis needed to stop a running malware outbreak once the network has already been accessed.


NEW QUESTION # 30
What is the primary benefit of conducting a root cause analysis after a security incident?

  • A. Improve FTP throughput
  • B. Enable compliance with NTP standards
  • C. Drive design improvements to prevent recurrence
  • D. Validate OSI model compliance

Answer: C

Explanation:
Root cause analysis focuses on identifying the underlying cause of a security incident. This enables organizations to improve system design, controls, or processes so that similar incidents do not happen again, rather than only fixing symptoms.


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which generative AI impact is addressed by a human-in-the-loop design policy?

  • A. deep fakes
  • B. phishing
  • C. AI hallucinations
  • D. scale changes

Answer: C

Explanation:
A human-in-the-loop design policy ensures that humans validate or oversee AI-generated outputs, reducing the risk of AI hallucinations (false or misleading information generated by AI).
This provides accountability and accuracy in generative AI use.


NEW QUESTION # 32
A company has been facing recurring issues with SQL injection vulnerabilities affecting the products, leading to significant disruptions for customers. To address the security concerns proactively, the company wants to integrate a tool into the CI/CD pipeline. The tool must be capable of identifying vulnerabilities such as SQL injection early in the development process, which allows developers to rectify issues before the code is deployed. Which solution must be implemented to meet the requirement?

  • A. Static Application Security Testing tools, such as Checkmarx, Fortify, SonarQube
  • B. Dynamic Application Security Testing tools, such as OWASP ZAP, Veracode, Burp Suite
  • C. build log observability tools, such as Splunk, Datadog
  • D. workflow automation tools, such as GitHub Actions, Azure

Answer: A

Explanation:
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tools analyze source code during the development and build phases of the CI/CD pipeline. They can identify coding flaws such as SQL injection vulnerabilities early, allowing developers to fix issues before deployment.


NEW QUESTION # 33
A developer company recently made a contract with new customer in the financial space. The customer has multiple remote sites and requires a VPN solution with the highest encryption.
Which protocol must be used in IPsec Phase 2?

  • A. ESP
  • B. ISAKMP
  • C. IKE
  • D. SD-WAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
In IPsec Phase 2, the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol is used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for VPN traffic. ESP ensures the highest encryption and protection for sensitive financial data across remote sites.


NEW QUESTION # 34
A telecommunications company recently introduced a hybrid working model. Based on the new policy, employees can work remotely for 2 days per week if corporate equipment is used. The IT department is preparing corporate laptops to support users during the remote working days.
Which solution must the IT department implement that provides secure connectivity to corporate resources and protects sensitive corporate data even if a laptop is stolen?

  • A. Secure Client
  • B. ISE Posture
  • C. Cisco Duo
  • D. Umbrella

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cisco Secure Client (formerly AnyConnect) provides secure remote connectivity through VPN, ensuring encrypted access to corporate resources. It also integrates endpoint security features, protecting sensitive corporate data even if a laptop is stolen.


NEW QUESTION # 35
A financial company uses a remote access solution that directs all traffic over a secure tunnel.
The company recently received some large ISP bills from the headcounter location. According to traffic analysis during the investigation, most of the network traffic was due to employees spending a lot of time on video conferences provided by a SaaS collaboration company. What must the company modify to reduce the cost without negatively impacting security or employee experience?

  • A. Split-exclude the video SaaS application from the VPN.
  • B. Block the video conferencing app when connected on VPN.
  • C. Reduce the video resolution size permitted within the SaaS application.
  • D. Suggest users to disconnect from the VPN when on video calls.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Split-exclusion allows trusted SaaS traffic (such as video conferencing) to bypass the VPN tunnel while keeping all other traffic secured. This reduces bandwidth costs at the headend location without degrading security or employee experience, since traffic to the SaaS provider is still encrypted natively.


NEW QUESTION # 36
A financial company is in the process of upgrading network access across the entire company.
The solution must ensure:
- least privilege access
- control access across different network segments
- increased security for employers
Which solution approach must the company take?

  • A. NetFlow
  • B. SNMP
  • C. PKI
  • D. RBAC

Answer: D

Explanation:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) enforces least privilege access by granting permissions based on roles, not individuals. It also provides centralized control across network segments, ensuring employees only have the access necessary for their responsibilities, thereby increasing overall security.


NEW QUESTION # 37
A developer is building new API functions for a cloud-based application. Before writing the code, the developer wants to ensure that destructive actions, including deleting and updating data, are properly protected by access control identifying sensitive fields such as those that contain passwords or personally identifiable information. Which approach must be used to score the risks proactively?

  • A. Open API Specification Analysis
  • B. CSPM
  • C. SBOM Generation
  • D. SAST

Answer: A

Explanation:
Open API Specification Analysis evaluates API definitions before code is written, identifying risky endpoints (such as delete or update functions) and sensitive fields (like PII or passwords). This allows developers to proactively score risks and apply proper access controls early in the design phase.


NEW QUESTION # 38
An IT company experienced the spread of malicious content between user endpoints, which impacted business critical resources. The company wants to implement a solution to control communication between individual endpoints on the network. Which approach achieves the goal?

  • A. posture
  • B. TrustSec
  • C. profiling
  • D. RADIUS

Answer: B

Explanation:
The spread of malicious content between endpoints is a classic case oflateral movement. To control and restrict communication between individual endpoints-regardless of their physical location or IP address- Cisco TrustSecis the recommended architectural approach. TrustSec moves away from traditional, IP-based Access Control Lists (ACLs), which are difficult to manage and scale, and instead usesScalable Group Tags (SGTs).
With TrustSec, every endpoint is assigned an SGT based on its role or security context (e.g., "Employee,"
"Contractor," or "HR"). Security policies are then defined in a centralized matrix (the egress policy matrix) that dictates which SGTs can talk to one another. For example, a policy can be set so that endpoints in the
"Developer" group cannot communicate directly with endpoints in the "Sales" group, effectively preventing malware from hopping between machines. WhileRADIUS(Option A) is the protocol used for authentication, it does not perform the segmentation itself.Posture(Option C) checks the health of the device, andProfiling (Option D) identifies what the device is, but neither provides the policy-based traffic control of TrustSec. By implementing TrustSec, the company achievesmicro-segmentation, significantly reducing the internal attack surface and containing potential breaches within a single group, which is a core goal of modern secure infrastructure design.


NEW QUESTION # 39
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