[2025] Free 100-160 Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily
100-160 Exam Dumps, 100-160 Practice Test Questions
NEW QUESTION # 26
You are reviewing the Application log on a Windows computer. You see an event with an error-level message as shown.
What can you determine about the application that generated the event message?
- A. The application recovered from an event without loss of functionality.
- B. The application is currently running much slower than expected.
- C. The application loaded and ran successfully without issues.
- D. The application experienced a significant problem that caused it to fail.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the CCST Cybersecurity course, Windows Event Viewer Error events in the Application log indicate a severe problem that caused an application or component to fail. This usually requires investigation or repair.
"Error events indicate a significant problem such as a loss of functionality in an application or system component. Errors are often critical and need immediate attention." (CCST Cybersecurity, Incident Handling, Event Logging and Analysis section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is incorrect: Performance slowness would usually generate warnings, not errors.
B is correct: An "Error" level in Event Viewer means the application failed in some way.
C is incorrect: That describes an "Information" event, not an error.
D is incorrect: That also corresponds to an "Information" event.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is a characteristic of weak encryption algorithms?
- A. They are susceptible to cryptanalysis attacks.
- B. They support secure communication protocols.
- C. They provide encryption keys with longer bit lengths.
- D. They are resistant to brute force attacks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Weak encryption algorithms are those that can be easily broken or exploited using various encryption analysis techniques. These algorithms have vulnerabilities that can be used to decrypt the encrypted data without the need for the encryption key.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which logging mechanism is used in Linux and Unix-based systems to store system and application logs?
- A. System and application logs
- B. Event Viewer
- C. Audit logs
- D. Syslog
Answer: D
Explanation:
Syslog is a standard logging protocol that is commonly used in Linux and Unix-based systems to store and forward system and application logs. It allows administrators to collect logs from multiple devices and applications and store them in a centralized location for analysis, troubleshooting, and compliance purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is a best practice for managing security policies and procedures?
- A. Allowing users to create and manage their own security policies
- B. Not documenting the security policies and procedures
- C. Implementing a regular review process for security policies
- D. Relying solely on default security settings
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct: Implementing a regular review process for security policies ensures that they are up-to-date and aligned with the organization's current security needs.
Option 2: Incorrect: Relying solely on default security settings is not a best practice as default settings may not provide adequate protection and may not be appropriate for the organization's specific needs.
Option 3: Incorrect: Allowing users to create and manage their own security policies can lead to inconsistencies, lack of control, and potential security vulnerabilities.
Option 4: Incorrect: Not documenting the security policies and procedures makes it difficult to enforce and communicate these policies to employees.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which Windows app is a command-line interface that includes a sophisticated scripting language used to automate Windows tasks?
- A. Vim
- B. MS-DOS
- C. PowerShell
- D. Microsoft Management Console
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity course identifies Windows PowerShell as both a command-line interface (CLI) and a robust scripting environment. It is used by system administrators for automation, configuration, and task scheduling.
"PowerShell is a Windows command-line shell and scripting language built on the .NET framework. It allows administrators to automate administrative tasks, manage system configurations, and execute complex scripts for system management." (CCST Cybersecurity, Endpoint Security Concepts, System Administration Tools section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is correct: PowerShell provides both interactive command execution and scripting capabilities.
B (MMC) is a GUI-based management console, not a CLI.
C (Vim) is a text editor, not a Windows-native CLI.
D (MS-DOS) is a legacy command shell with no advanced scripting features comparable to PowerShell.
NEW QUESTION # 31
What is the main purpose of risk management in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. To ignore potential cybersecurity risks to minimize costs.
- B. To transfer all cybersecurity risks to a third-party vendor.
- C. To eliminate all possible risks to an organization's cybersecurity.
- D. To identify and prioritize potential cybersecurity risks for effective mitigation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The main purpose of risk management in the context of cybersecurity is to identify and prioritize potential risks associated with a system, network, or application. By understanding the risks, organizations can develop effective mitigation strategies and allocate resources accordingly. Risk management involves assessing the likelihood and impact of potential risks, determining their significance to the organization, and implementing appropriate controls to mitigate or reduce those risks to an acceptable level.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is an essential component of information security assessments?
- A. Incident response planning
- B. All of the above
- C. Penetration testing
- D. User training
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information security assessments involve assessing the security posture of an IT system. Penetration testing, which involves simulating attacks to identify vulnerabilities, is an important component of such assessments. Additionally, user training is vital because human error or lack of awareness can often be a weak point in security. Understanding how to recognize and respond to potential threats is crucial. Lastly, incident response planning is essential to ensure that the organization is prepared to handle and mitigate any security incidents effectively. Therefore, all the options mentioned in the
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which encryption algorithm is commonly used for securing wireless network communication?
- A. SSL
- B. DES
- C. AES
- D. RC4
Answer: C
Explanation:
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is widely used for securing wireless network communications. It is considered a strong and secure symmetric encryption algorithm that provides confidentiality and data integrity in wireless networks. AES has become the standard encryption algorithm for securing Wi-Fi networks (WPA2).
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which feature allows endpoints to communicate directly with each other, bypassing the network?
- A. VPN
- B. Peer-to-Peer
- C. IPS
- D. Firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Option 2: Incorrect. An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is a network security device that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and takes immediate action to prevent attacks.
Option 3: Incorrect. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a secure connection between two or more endpoints over a public network, providing encryption and privacy for data communication.
Option 4: Correct. Peer-to-peer (P2P) is a decentralized communication model where endpoints can directly communicate with each other without the need for a central server or network infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which protocol is commonly used for remote user authentication and authorization?
- A. SSH
- B. RADIUS
- C. LDAP
- D. TACACS+
Answer: B
Explanation:
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely-used protocol for remote user authentication and authorization. It provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting management for users who dial in or connect remotely to a network. RADIUS uses a client-server model where the client (network access server) forwards user authentication requests to the RADIUS server for validation.
NEW QUESTION # 36
You need to diagram an intrusion event by using the Diamond Model.
Move each event detail from the list on the left to the correct location in the diagram on the right.
Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct response.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 37
What is a key principle of securing data in the cloud?
- A. Implementing strong physical security measures
- B. Limiting access to the cloud from specific IP addresses
- C. Encrypting data at rest and in transit
- D. Using complex passwords for all cloud users
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. Implementing strong physical security measures is important, but it is not the key principle of securing data in the cloud.
Option 2: Correct. Encrypting data at rest and in transit is a key principle of securing data in the cloud. This ensures that even if the data is compromised, it cannot be accessed without the decryption key.
Option 3: Incorrect. Using complex passwords is a good security practice, but it is not the key principle of securing data in the cloud.
Option 4: Incorrect. Limiting access to the cloud from specific IP addresses is a security measure, but it is not the key principle of securing data in the cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is true about security policies and procedures?
- A. They should be kept confidential and not shared with employees.
- B. They should be regularly reviewed and updated to reflect changing threats and technologies
- C. They should only be accessible to the IT department.
- D. They should be documented once and never changed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct: Security policies and procedures should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure they align with changing threats and technologies. This helps to maintain the effectiveness of the policies and processes.
Option 2: Incorrect: Security policies and procedures should be accessible to relevant employees and stakeholders, not restricted only to the IT department. It is important for everyone to understand and adhere to the policies and procedures.
Option 3: Incorrect: Security policies and procedures should be regularly updated as needed, not documented once and never changed. The changing threat landscape and evolving technologies necessitate the periodic review and update of security policies and procedures.
Option 4: Incorrect: Security policies and procedures should be communicated and shared with employees to ensure everyone understands and follows them. Keeping them confidential and not sharing them would hinder their effectiveness.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is a key advantage of multifactor authentication?
- A. It eliminates the need for strong passwords.
- B. It allows for anonymous access to systems and resources.
- C. It simplifies the authentication process.
- D. It provides enhanced security by requiring multiple proofs of identity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication enhances security by requiring users to present multiple proofs of identity. By combining different factors, such as something you know, something you have, or something you are, it becomes more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access. This approach adds an extra layer of protection compared to relying solely on a username and password combination.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following best defines "Techniques, Tactics, and Procedures (TTP)" in the context of cybersecurity investigations?
- A. A set of guidelines for securing network devices.
- B. An organized digital evidence collection process.
- C. A framework for analyzing network traffic.
- D. A pattern of behavior adopted by threat actors.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Techniques, Tactics, and Procedures (TTP) refer to the methods and strategies used by threat actors in cyber-attacks. TTPs encompass various aspects such as the tools and techniques employed, the patterns of behavior exhibited, and the procedures followed by attackers during their malicious activities. By understanding TTPs, cybersecurity professionals can better identify and defend against threats.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following involves dividing a network into smaller, more manageable segments?
- A. DHCP configuration
- B. VLAN configuration
- C. Subnetting
- D. IP addressing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Subnetting is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, called subnets or subnetworks. It helps in improving network performance, optimizing address allocation, and enhancing network security. Subnetting is typically done by using a subnet mask to determine the network and host portions of an IP address.
NEW QUESTION # 42
What is the purpose of Tactics in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. To identify specific cyber threat actors
- B. To categorize the methods and strategies employed by cyber threat actors
- C. To track the impact of a cyberattack on the integrity of data
- D. To determine the motive behind a cyberattack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tactics in cybersecurity refer to the methods and strategies used by cyber threat actors to achieve their objectives. Understanding and categorizing these tactics help organizations assess their vulnerability to specific attacks and develop appropriate defense measures.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface card (NIC)?
- A. Default gateway
- B. Subnet mask
- C. IP address
- D. MAC address
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface card (NIC) by the manufacturer. It is a 48-bit address typically represented as six groups of two hexadecimal digits separated by colons or hyphens. MAC addresses are used for communication at the data link layer of the network stack.
NEW QUESTION # 44
What is tailgating in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. A cyber attack where an attacker manipulates and deceives an individual to reveal sensitive information.
- B. A form of social engineering attack that uses SMS or text messages to trick victims into revealing sensitive information.
- C. A physical attack where an unauthorized person gains entry to a restricted area by following closely behind an authorized person.
- D. A type of phishing attack that targets specific individuals or organizations.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tailgating refers to the act of an unauthorized person gaining physical access to a secured area by closely following behind an authorized person who has just been granted access. This form of physical attack exploits the weakness in human behavior, as people tend to hold doors open for others out of politeness or assume that the person following them is authorized.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which aspect of security is primarily addressed by BYOD policies?
- A. Application security
- B. Data privacy
- C. Device management
- D. Network availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policies primarily address device management. With BYOD policies, organizations allow employees to use their personal devices to access company resources. The policies include guidelines for managing and securing these devices, ensuring compliance, and protecting company data while respecting employee privacy.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following best describes the concept of automation in cybersecurity testing?
- A. Using software and tools to automatically conduct security tests
- B. Implementing security controls to prevent attacks
- C. Conducting manual security tests
- D. Performing physical tests on network infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation in cybersecurity testing involves using software and tools to automatically conduct security tests. This approach helps to increase efficiency and accuracy by automating repetitive tasks, such as vulnerability scanning, penetration testing, and log analysis. It allows for the identification of security issues and vulnerabilities in a timely manner.
NEW QUESTION # 47
What term refers to the process of creating a virtual version of a device or resource, such as a server or a network?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Cloud
- C. DMZ
- D. Proxy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtualization is the process of creating a virtual version of a device or resource, such as a server or a network, by abstracting the underlying physical infrastructure. It allows multiple virtual instances to be created and run on a single physical server, enabling organizations to maximize resource utilization, increase flexibility, and simplify management. Virtualization is widely used in data centers to optimize efficiency and reduce costs. -
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is an example of a web application vulnerability that can be exploited by an attacker?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
- C. Network latency
- D. Disk fragmentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a web application vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious code into a trusted website, which then executes on the victim's browser. This vulnerability can allow attackers to steal sensitive information, perform phishing attacks, or deliver malware. Disk fragmentation, network latency, and buffer overflow are not examples of web application vulnerabilities; they refer to other aspects of computing performance and security.
NEW QUESTION # 49
You notice that a new CVE has been shared to an email group that you belong to.
What should you do first with the CVE?
- A. Add the CVE to the firewall rules for your organization.
- B. Look up details of the vulnerability to determine whether it applies to your network.
- C. Record the CVE as part of the disaster recovery plan.
- D. Research measures to prevent the CVE from attacking the network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity material describes that the first step after receiving a new CVE notification is to review its details-such as affected systems, severity, and exploitability-to determine if it is relevant to your organization.
"Upon learning of a new CVE, security teams should analyze the vulnerability description, affected products, and CVSS score to determine applicability and urgency of mitigation." (CCST Cybersecurity, Vulnerability Assessment and Risk Management, Vulnerability Prioritization section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is correct: Confirming applicability avoids unnecessary remediation for irrelevant vulnerabilities.
B is done after confirming applicability.
C (disaster recovery plan) is unrelated to immediate CVE handling.
D (adding to firewall rules) is premature without confirming impact.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Why is updating documentation regularly important in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. To ensure compliance with industry regulations
- B. All of the above
- C. To maintain accurate records of security incidents
- D. To facilitate effective incident response and investigation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Updating documentation regularly is crucial in cybersecurity for multiple reasons. Firstly, it helps maintain accurate records of security incidents, which is essential for future reference and analysis. Secondly, updating documentation ensures compliance with industry regulations and standards, helping organizations avoid potential penalties and legal issues. Lastly, up-to-date documentation facilitates effective incident response and investigation, enabling swift action and minimizing the impact of cybersecurity incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 51
......
100-160 Exam Dumps, 100-160 Practice Test Questions: https://certlibrary.itpassleader.com/Cisco/100-160-dumps-pass-exam.html